1.1 Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus through the will of God.1 To the saints [who are2 in Ephesus] and the faithful in Christ, 2 grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who blessed3 us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly (realms) in Christ, 4 just as he chose us in him before the creation of the cosmos that we might be4 holy and faultless in his presence in love, 5 who chose us beforehand5 in adoption through Jesus in him, according to the purpose of his will,6 6 in glorious7 praise of his grace8 which he bestowed freely on us in him who has been loved.9
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1θεοῦ, Gen.: Subjective (of θελήματος, from θέλλω)
3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who blessed3 us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly (realms) in Christ, 4 just as he chose us in him before the creation of the cosmos that we might be4 holy and faultless in his presence in love, 5 who chose us beforehand5 in adoption through Jesus in him, according to the purpose of his will,6 6 in glorious7 praise of his grace8 which he bestowed freely on us in him who has been loved.9
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1θεοῦ, Gen.: Subjective (of θελήματος, from θέλλω)
2τοῖς οὖσιν, Ptc.: Substantival
3ὁ εὐλογήσας, Ptc.: Substantival
4εἶναι, Inf.: Purpose, Result
5προορίσας, Ptc.: Substantival
6τοῦ θελήματος, Gen.: Objective (of εὐδοκίαν, from εὐδοκέω?)
7δόξης, Gen.: Attributive
8τῆς χάριτος, Gen.: Objective (of ἔπαινον, from ἐπαινέω)
9τῷ παραπτωμάτων, Ptc.: Substantival
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-Nothing magnificent or particularly difficult here. For a while I wondered whether προορίσας could be causal, in that the blessing (εὐλογήσας) was the result of the pre-choosing. It sounded clunky, and didn't quite fit the structure of the rest of the sentence. It seemed, rather, to parallel the previous participle, perhaps even going so far as to borrow its definite article.
-The genitive string in v. 6 (εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης τῆς χάριτος αὐτοῦ) could go a few other ways: (1) "in praise of his glorious grace," in which δόξης is attributed to χάριτος; (2) "in praise of his graceful glory," in which χάριτος is attributive of δόξης; or (3) "in praise of the grace of his glory," which remains ambiguous but best preserves the word order.
-A dynamic rendering of τῷ παραπτωμάτων could be "him whom he has loved," putting the emphasis on the Father instead of the Son. In NA27, however, there are some manuscripts which add υιω αυτου after the participle, further enforcing the focus on the Son here. (While I would like to include more work incorporating the textual variants and their importance, that may belong to another project.)
For the future, I feel I must say it's taking a while to transfer these from handwritten notes into Blogger. Since the editor for posting does not normally have the option for super- and subscripting texts, I've had to learn some HTML and do it myself. Also, I have to decipher my handwriting and recall interpretive choices from almost a year ago, so bear with me.
Grace and peace,
-Reed
I don't have time to keep up with this, but I don't have another outlet for Greek translation. Darn you for doing this, Reed, though I love you for it.
ReplyDelete1) I think footnote 2 should be attributive, though it isn't a significant change. I think that is just more consistent with Wallace, but you may certainly break away from him, if you wish. (I think the same could be said of footnotes 3 and 4, but again, it's of no real importance.)
2) The end of verse two could instead read "from God the Father of us and of the Lord Jesus Christ." I do prefer your translation, but I thought this was an interesting possibility. (The evidence in favor of your translation would probably be because verse three would seem repetitive with this alternate translation.)
3) I notice you did not make a decision with the infinitive's classification in verse four. I would easily keep the translation as you have it, but I'm curious what you think the merit of one or the other classification would be.
4) I read your note about the pre-choosing, and it seems much more natural the way you translated it. I tried very hard to read it causally as you suggested, but it didn't make much sense to me in the context. (I know we've sometimes seen a causal vacillate with a means or another adverbial classification, but I think it would be weird for it to do so with an adjectival.)
5) With the string of genitives in verse six, I think you left out the most straightforward option: "in praise of the glory of his grace." Actually, looking at your note again, I think you just have a typo. Anyway, I would quibble with you on this one and argue for your first alternative, "in praise of his glorious grace." I think if "glory" was going to modify "praise," it would be in the same case as a simple adjective. (I haven't brushed up on my Wallace, but I'm sure he has some argument for why this might be so in some cases. If we know why it would be so elsewhere, we might be able to decide why it isn't here.)
6) Finally, I think the end of verse six is probably an instrumental dative(?) with a translation of "through the one he loved." Certainly your translation could be read that way, but it doesn't really apply the force. "The Father gave us this grace (of adoption) through his beloved son." Something like that.
I've been up long enough now. Blessings!
By the way, this is Tyler. I didn't realize it would use my pseudonym.
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